Would like your thoughts on what will actually happen if I specify the clause 'Locking Row for Access' in a VIEW which joins two more VIEWs (which have 'locking row for access' specified in their DDL) and these later two VIEWs are one-to-one copy of underlying tables.Something like this:
View AV is on two more views - EV1 and Ev2 and
AV --> create view AV (ev1.col1 , ev2.col2) locking row for access select ev1.col1, ev2.col2 from EV1, EV2 where <joining condition>
EV1 --> create view EV1 (col1, col2, col3) locking row for access select col1, col2, col3 .... from T1)
EV2 --> same definition like EV1 on table T2
An answer is well appreciated.
did you try an explain for the selects?
It is stating which actual locks are set for the select.
Is the join a PI join?
Yes Ulrich. i have comapared two explain plans. And they state the same access path. I have used the following DDLs to simulate the problem. Now please let me know is there any other concerns that you can think of ?